Rukas said:
Im sorry, but no matter what pro-Islamic sites say, impaling on the stake is not crucifixion! The only non Quran evidence I see is Egyptian hieroglyphics that mention impaling onto a stake; that is not crucifixion.
The beginning of your quote contains an ad hominem logical fallacy as you are attempting to discredit the arguments presented in the Islamic-Awareness article solely because the authors are Muslims! As for evidence, all evidence used was non-Qur'anic evidence! Biblical encyclopedias were cited which established the definition of crucifixion. Thus, based on Biblical dictionaries such as the New Catholic Encyclopedia, Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testamnet words, Anchor Bible Dictionary, Oxford Companion to the Bible, etc. The conclusion on crucifixion is as follows:
Crucifixion is the act of nailing, binding or impaling a living victim or sometimes a dead person to a cross, stake or a tree, whether for executing the body or for exposing the corpse. Crucifixion was intended to serve as both a severe punishment and a frightful deterrent to others. It was unanimously considered the most horrible form of death. The procedure of crucifixion was subject to wide variation according to the whim of the executioner, but victims were often executed by being impaled on a stake.
The cross (Greek stauros; Latin crux) was originally a single upright stake or post upon which the victim was either tied, nailed or impaled. This simple cross was later modified when horizontal crossbeams of various types were added. Scholars are not certain when a crossbeam was added to the simple stake, but even in the Roman period the cross would at times only consist of a single vertical stake.
From ancient Greek and Roman writers (such as Herodotus and Seneca) we learn of several forms of crucifixion. Some forms being impalement rather than what we would today describe as crucifixion.[17] In many cases, especially during the Roman period, the execution stake became a vertical pole with a horizontal crossbar placed at some point, and although the period of time at which this happened is uncertain, what is known is that this simple impalement became known as crucifixion. Whether the victim was tied, nailed or impaled to the stake, the same Greek words were still used to described the procedure.
Although in New Testament usage the Greek word stauros (cross) is said to refer to a crossbeam, the term actually has a much wider application, being used to refer to both a single stake and a crossbeam. The four most popular representations of the cross are: (i) crux simplex |, a "single piece without transom"; (ii) crux decussata X, or St. Andrew's cross; (iii) crux commissa T, or St. Anthony's cross; and (iv) crux immisaa or Latin cross upon which Jesus was allegedly crucified.[18]
A primitive form of crucifixion on trees had long been in use, and such a tree was also known as a cross (crux). Different ideas also prevailed concerning the material form of the cross, and it seems that the word had been frequently used in a broad sense. The Latin word crux was applied to the simple pole, and indicated directly the nature and purpose of this instrument, being derived from the verb crucio, "to torment", "to torture." The practice of crucifixion was finally abolished in 337 by Constantine I out of respect for Jesus Christ, whom he believed died on the cross.
A couple of the other explenations are shaky at best, and a couple you havent even addressed (Mary as the holy spirit for example), but I wont dwell on it and go over and over it because Im finishing up some other work. But I will make a new point for you to think about.
You've just shown that you were unable to refute the explanations and decided instead to simply throw more allegations! As for Mary and the Holy Spirit, nowhere does the Qur'an say that the two are the same if that is indeed what you are implying.
You proceed to cite old alleged claims of internal contradictions which were debunked long ago on the following sites:
http://understanding-islam.com/related/questionsarticles.asp?sscatid=89
http://www.answering-christianity.com/quran/quranerr.htm
http://www.load-islam.com/C/rebuttal/alleged_contradictions
Well, The Quran says in several places that Allah created the world in six days, yet it also says in other places that Allah created the world in eight days (two for earth, two for nourishment, and four for heaven. Do the math, 2 + 2 + 4 = 8.
Refuted Here:
http://www.load-islam.com/C/rebuttals/The_Number_of_Days_Taken_to_Create_the_Universe/
The Quran says that for Allah, a day is equal to a 1000 years, yet it also says that for Allah, a day is equal to 50,000 years, so which is it?
Refuted Here:
http://www.load-islam.com/C/rebuttal/On_The_Length_of_Days
Also, what was created first, the heaven or the earth? At one time Allah says one, and at another time the other. Did Allah forget?
Refuted here:
http://www.load-islam.com/C/rebuttals/Which_was_Created_first,_the_Heavens_or_the_Earth/
The Quran says that the sun sets in a muddy spring.
Refuted here:
http://www.geocities.com/noorullahwebsite/zul-qarnain.html
http://faithfreedom.com/anti_islamic_claims/zulqarnain.html
The Quran says that the sun and moon have resting places, and that when the sun sets, it waits for Allah's permission to come up again. This also points to the belief that the world is flat, because if its round, they should have known that while it disappears for one person, it still shines for others, it does not set anywhere, does not get protection behind something, and does not disappear.
Please cite the verses and you will find that the Qur'an makes no such claim.
The Quran says that the sky is a roof or a canopy
The atmosphere of the earth
is a canopy composed of gaseous matter which prevent harmful radiation from striking the earth.
that is held by supports we cant see
No, the Qur'an says that it is not held by visible supports. As we know, atmospheric pressure does act as a supportive force.
and that mountins are used to stop the earth from shaking
Why don't you read what a Professor in Geology from the University of California has written about it?
http://www.islamonline.net/English/Science/2002/09/article13.shtml
The Quran says that the stars are in the lower sky (below the roof I guess) and below the sun, and that they are there to drive away satans. It makes no mention of the fact that stars are far away, and suns in themselves, not "lights".
Please quote specific verses.
The Quran says that the sun and moon go AROUND the earth. I mean, come on, how much more proof do you need? It says it rather directly as well.
Nonsense. The Qur'an says no such thing.
"Seest thou not that Allah merges Night into Day and He merges Day into Night; That He has subjected the sun and moon (to His law), each running its course for a term (time) appointed."
"It is He who created The Night and Day, And the Sun and Moon; each of them Swim (float) along in its own course."
Do night and day merge? Yes. Are the sun and moon both governed by set laws? Yes. Do they both have orbits? Yes. Then we should have no problem with these verses. Your claim that the Qur'an says that the sun goes around the earth was a blatant LIE.
The Quran goes from saying that no Religion is compulsive, to saying that Muslims must fight those who do not follow Islam (which leads to a lot of todays problems).
There are many misquoted verses on the subject of violence and fighting in the Qur'an. All of them, without exception, are explained here:
http://www.load-islam.com/C/rebuttals/Misquoted
And why is it that all Muslims blame translations for the "misunderstandings" (read: things they dont agree with) when the Quran says:
"Verily, We have made This Quran easy in the tongue, in order that they may give heed."
How does the above verse necessitate the infallibility of translations?! Easy in tongue can mean a number of things, one being the arabic recitation and memorization of the Qur'an.