The question you're asking is quite closely related to the Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis, which, put simply, states that language influences cognition. A structuralist would say that because different languages demarcate their units of meaning differently, their speakers can't help but perceive the world differently too. The famous example is of the Tarahumaran people, who do not differentiate between green and blue on the colour spectrum. To summarise the results of the experiment, if you showed English speakers a dark blue and a light blue colour chip which were miles away from each other on the colour spectrum, and then a blue and green chip which were actually quite close together, and asked them which pair were more different from each other, most English speakers would get it wrong and opt for the second pair because that's where English imposes a boundary.
Generally frowned upon in linguistics, the theory nevertheless holds a certain cult attraction for some of the arty-fartier among us. I'm investigating whether or not the languages which have grammatical gender produce cultures which prescribe very inflexible gender roles.
I recommend Piaget as a starting point for futher reading into this conundrum.
btw its nice to see intelligent posts :thumb:
edit :Also look into Chomsky, a very popular psycholinguist, who, in my opinion, speaks a lot of sense. If you think about it, words are essential for conveying most messages, but they are not the be-all and end-all. If you know how sommmething looks, without saying it, or thinking the words, you can compare it to something else you see. Same with sounds, tastes, smells and all sensations.