Someone familiar with the Bible help me out here.

[roaches]

1 Timothy, Chapter 1, Verse 9:

"Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,"

What does this mean? I assume it has something to do with saved people being exempt from Jewish law.

 

[Jokerman]

1 Timothy, Chapter 1, Verse 9:

I assume it has something to do with saved people being exempt from Jewish law.

In a way. But it's saying the law is not laid down for the saved not because they are saved per se, but because being saved they would never sin, kill, lie, fornicate, or whatever else is contrary to the law. Hence, the law is not for them. Also, it doesn't build up the righteous. But it can help build up the unrighteous by acting on their conscience. So, not exempt from the law, but beyond it. But if they did any of those things, it would show they weren't "saved," and the law would be for them, and they would be punished.

 

[roaches]

Gotcha. Thanks.